Log inLog in    RegisterRegister          SearchSearch       ProfileProfile    ContactContact       FAQFAQ     Log in to check your private messagesLog in to check your private messages

Last Minute Crunchies

Post new topic   Reply to topic    www.TheAirlinePilots.com Forum Index -> Air Law
View previous topic :: View next topic  
Author Message
Site Admin

Joined: 11 Dec 2005
Posts: 1287

PostPosted: Fri Sep 13, 2013 11:37 am    Post subject: Last Minute Crunchies Reply with quote

Arrow Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than: 1500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km

Below this minima special VFR clearance is required. With special VFR clearance, aircraft may land or take-off at an aerodrome within a control zone providing the pravailing visibility is more than 1500m according to ICAO or 3000m according to JAA/EASA.

Arrow An aircraft flying above the sea between 4500 feet MSL and 9000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility

VFR Minima: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1004

Arrow In order to operate under visual flight rules above FL 100 in uncontrolled airspace these must be: 8 km visibility, 1000 ft vertical and 1500 m horizontal separation from clouds

Arrow What is the minimum flight altitude permitted over towns and settlements and populated areas? 1000 ft (300m) above the highest obstacle within 600m of the aircraft position

Arrow When not flying over high terrain or mountainous areas and where no minimum flight altitude has been established, flights in accordance with IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least: 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft

Arrow Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight: at least 2000 feet within 8 km of the estimated position

Arrow If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed under VFR in VMC, he must inform ATC and include the phrase:

Cancelling IFR flight plan
Cancelling my IFR flight
Cancelling my flight
Cancel my IFR flight plan

Arrow Filing of Flight Plan:

For a controlled airspace - File 1 hour prior to departure - Incase there is a a delay of more than 30 mins, a new or amended flight plan is to be filed.

For an uncontrolled airspace - File 30 min prior to departure - Incase there is a a delay of more than 1 hour, a new or amended flight plan is to be filed.

If filed in flight - 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area or the point of crossing an airway or advisory route.

For a flight that is subject to flow management, the submission time for the ATC flight plan is: 3 hours

Repetitive Flight Plan: IFR flights operated regularly on the same day of consecutive weeks, on at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days.

Arrow In Item 8 of flight plan: Y = First IFR Then VFR, Z = First VFR Then IFR.

Arrow Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flights within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service: Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service

Arrow If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form: write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information ALTN/followed by the name of the airport

Arrow During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will: Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC

Arrow If a communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, the pilot shall: proceed to the navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome and commence descent at the expected approach time or, if no expected approach time has been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival resulting from the current flight plan

Arrow Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)? Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance

Position Report and AIREP Content: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=977

Arrow Minimum height for"Transition Altitude" over an airfield shall be: 3000 feet or 1,000 ft AGL

Arrow First usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above: 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL

Arrow What is the appropriate IFR flight level for a magnetic track of 125o?

FL 280
FL 290
FL 350
FL 310

Dont assume RVSM unless it is specified in the question. In non-RVSM, after 290 the separation is 2000 feet. Since track is 125 (b/w 000-179) 280 is not a possibility. Starting from 290 next higher levels will be 330, 370, 410. This rules out 310 and 350.

Cruising Levels: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1007

Arrow The vertical position of an aircraft is expressed in altitude when:

The aircraft is below the transition altitude
The aircraft is below the transition level
The aircraft is at or below the transition altitude
The aircraft is at or below the transition level

Arrow Signals area of an aerodrome is only used for VFR operations. ATC Light and Ground Signals: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1008

Arrow A Rescue Unit is: A unit composed of trained personnel and provided with equipment suitable for the expeditious conduct of SAR

Arrow Search and Rescue services within the territory of ICAO contracting states are provided: on a 24 hour basis

Arrow The units responsible for promoting efficient orgnisation of search and rescue service are: Rescue co-ordination centre and rescue sub-centres

Arrow When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the: operational air traffic control centres

Arrow Life Jackets requirement on overwater flights: When away from the shore by more than 50 NM.

Arrow Life Rafts requirement on overwater flights: Distance equal to 120 minutes at cruising speed (normal not single engine) or 400 nautical miles, whichever is the less.

Arrow An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than: 90 minutes at cruising speed

Arrow When you are intercepting a distress signal and/or message, you shall: record the position of the craft in distress if given; if possible take a bearing of the transmission inform the appropriate RCC or ASS and¿ while awaiting instructions proceed at your discretion towards the position given in the transmission

Arrow Colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment:

Red: Medical supplies and first aid equipment.

Blue: Food and water.

Yellow: Blankets and protective clothing.

Black: Miscellaneous equipment such as stoves, axes, compasses, cooking utensils etc.

Arrow Search and Rescue Signals: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1018

Arrow An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the frequency 121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established and if practicable repeat this call on the frequency 243 MHz

Arrow NOZ (Normal Operating Zone) is an Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localiser course and/or MLS final approach track centre line

Arrow The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach is:

Visual approach
Visual manoeuvring (circling)

Arrow A visual approach is: An instrument approach where the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually, providing that he has the necessary visual criteria

Arrow A precision approach is a direct instrument approach

using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information
using bearing, elevation and distance information
using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft
carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method

Arrow A precision Approach Procedure is defined as:

An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information
An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations
An instrument approach procedure utilising azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR
An approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance information

Arrow A revised EAT will be transmitted when it differs from that previously transmitted by: 5 minutes or more

Arrow STAR = Standard Instrument Arrival (exact opposite of SID which is Standard Instrument Departure)

Arrow During a non-precision approach, the maximum interception angle to the initial segment track is: 120 deg (90 for precission approach).

Arrow A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a: Procedure turn

Arrow The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre): is 15 minutes

Arrow When should the QNH be communicated to aircraft prior to take-off?

When taxi clearance is given
When the ATC clearance is delivered
When start clearance is given
When take off clearance is given

Arrow The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be: +/- 300 ft

Arrow An aircraft in climb or descent in considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:

300 ft
+/- 300 ft
More than 300 ft

Arrow 5th Freedom of the Air is: The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D)

Assume "B to be Base Nation"

Arrow 6th Freedom of the Air is: A combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C to A) through carriers base nation (B)

Freedoms of Air and Cabotage: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=997

Arrow International Conventions: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1071

Arrow ATS Route Designators: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1014

Arrow Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed: by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

Arrow Change-over points should be limited to route segments of 60 NM or more

Arrow The width of an advisory route is: 10 NM

Arrow Alerting Service: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1077

Arrow A TMA is: a CTA established to cover several major air traffic routes around one or more major aerodromes (a Control area will not be lower than 700 ft agl)

Arrow For an aerodrome to be considered controlled: The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower (and not specifically located somewhere)

Arrow Lateral limits of a CTR: 5 NM in the direction of the approach

Arrow Aircraft Airworthiness: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1079

Arrow Facilitation: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1080

Arrow Airspace Classes: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1083

Arrow Traffic Separation Minima: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1084

Arrow Radar and Wake Turbulence Separation Minima: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1085

Arrow The following applies for aircraft equipped with ACAS:

A) the ACAS capability of an aircraft will normally not be known to ATC controllers
B) Separation minima may be reduced by ATC between aircraft equipped with ACAS
C) As the ACAS capability of an aircraft is known to ATC, pilots may be required to maintain their own separation in cruise
D) The ATS procedures to be applied to aircraft with ACAS shall be identical to those applicable to non-ACAS equipped aircraft

Arrow Controlling authority for a CTA is an ACC

Arrow Air Traffic Service Unit means:

Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices
Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres
Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices
Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Services reporting offices

Arrow Which of the following statements concerning FIS is false:

FIS will include information concerning weather conditions reported or forecast at departure,
FIS will include information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes B, C, D, E, F and G
FIS will include information concerning on unmanned free balloons
FIS will include information concerning changes in the serviceability of navigation aids

Arrow Which of the following phenomena would cause a SIGMET to be transmitted to aircraft flying at subsonic cruising levels?

Cumulo-nimbus cloud, volcanic ash or severe icing
Active thunderstorms, moderate or severe turbulence or heavy hail
Severe line squalls, heavy hail or severe icing
Marked mountain wave or hail

It is for severe cases, so just select the option that has the maximum number of the word "severe" in it (or rule out the moderate cases)

Arrow Arrow Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of:

the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)
the air traffic services
both air traffic services and the meteorological office
the unit as prescribed the states

Arrow Voice ATIS broadcasts are:

Updated every hour and half hour regardless of change in content
Continuous and repetitive
Provided on the voice channel of ILS
All of the above are correct

Arrow ATIS messages are updated at least:

when significant changes occur
every 60 minutes except wen important changes occur
every 60 minutes
every 30 minutes

Arrow When should ATIS broadcasts be updated?

On a scheduled basis and when QNH, runway etc change
Every hour and half hour
At 15 minutes past and 45 minutes past the hour
At hourly intervals if any information has changed

Arrow When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR; otherwise hourly
Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use
Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value

Arrow Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within: 1 NM

Arrow Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority the radar controller should notify the nonradar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:

8 NM
10 NM
5 NM
6 NM

Arrow The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed: 4 NM from the threshold on final approach

Arrow Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than: 20 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold

Arrow During radar-control, a radar-controller shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the towercontroller has not issued a landing-clearance at the moment the aircraft is: 2 NM from touch-down

Arrow An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the: Last 2 NM of the approach

Arrow Where a Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures: To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more

Arrow One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: To conduct PRA and SRA

Arrow When a surveillance radar approach is to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of: 4 NM from the touch down

Arrow Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touch down of: 2 NM

Arrow The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when, as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each: 0.5 NM

Arrow How close to the boundary of a radar vectoring area can an aircraft be vectored by the radar controller? Half the radar separation distance or 2.5 NM whichever is greater

Arrow A TIMED APPROACH PROCEDURE may be utilised as necessary in order to expedite the approaches of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained by requesting aircraft to:

To pass a specified point
To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified time
To apply a step down descent between aircdraft in the approach sequence
To maintain a specified speed during the approach procedure

Arrow Significant changes in the mean surface wind velocity will be transmitted to an aircraft on final approach. Which of the following statements indicate the correct figures for these significant changes: Head wind 10 kt, Tail wind 2 kt, Crosswind 5 kt.

Arrow When using parallel runway operations and vectoring airraft for an ILS approach, how far in advance of intercepting the glide slope should an aircraft be established on the localiser? 2 nm

Arrow Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a non transgression zone (NTZ) of at least: 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display

Arrow The NTZ extends from the threshold of the nearer runway to the point at which 1000 ft vertical separation is reduced between aircraft.

Arrow Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?

An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable
The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions
Suspension of VFR operations cannot be initiated by the aerodrome controller
ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle

Arrow If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report field in sight, a clearance for visual approach may be given under certain conditions:

Continued approach will be according to VFR
The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic

Arrow For visual approaches, the following shall apply:

A) A visual approach may only be requested when the report ceiling is at or above the initial approach altitude/level
B) When so requested by a pilot, ATC is obliged to clear the aircraft for a visual approach
C) When cleared for a visual approach, the pilot has to maintain own separation to other aerodrome traffic
D) Separation has to be provided by ATC between an aircraft cleared for a visual approach and other arriving and departing aircraft

B and C
B only
A and D
D only

Arrow Which statement regarding approach control service is correct? If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft

Arrow A landing aircraft is not normally permitted to cross the beginning of the runway on its final approach until the preceding departing aircraft has: Become airborne and crossed the end of the runway threshold

Arrow ATCUs should advise aircraft operators or their designated representatives when anticipated delays due to traffic condition are likely to be substantial and in any event when they are expected to exceed: 30 minutes

Arrow Approach Control has the following duties:

Inform aircraft if the approach delay is greater than 30 minutes
Inform aircraft before departure if the delay is greater than 45 minutes

Arrow During the final approach which of the following information will be transmitted to the pilot without delay?

i) The sudden occurrence of hazards
ii) Significant variations in the current surface wind expressed in terms of minimum and maximum values
iv) Changes in the operational status of the required visual or non-visual aids

iii) Significant changes in runway and taxiway surface conditions (Taxiway surface conditions is the odd one out)

Arrow Clearances will contain which of the items specified below:

Aircraft identification, clearance limit, route of flight, level of flight
Aircraft identification, clearance limit, initial heading of flight, level of flight
Aircraft identification, route of flight, level of flight or changes of levels if required
Aircraft identification, clearance limit, track and headings of the route of flight, level of flight

rule out headings

Arrow What does a clearance for IMMEDIATE TAKE OFF mean?

Have all the appropriate checks complete before entering the runway
The subsequent taxi and take off shall be completed in one continuous movement

Arrow A controlled flight is: Any flight which is subject to an ATC clearance

Arrow The accuracy of measurement of the depth of slush on a runway is to: 0.3 cm

Arrow A runway would not be reported as FLOODED unless:

significant patches of standing water are visible
extensive standing water is visible

Arrow If a runway is reported as damp, the braking action may be assumed to be:


Arrow Dry snow is snow which:

will fall apart again if compacted by hand
will form a snowball if compacted by hand

Arrow Braking Action: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1023

Arrow Questions on AIP Sections GEN, ENR and AD:

3 Questions on AD

Q.1. Fuel available at an aerodrome will be published in: AIP-AD

Q.2. Detailed description of meteorological information provided at the aerodrome and an indication of which meteorological office is responsible, is in the following part of the AIP: AD

Q.3. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling facilities and limitations on refuelling services?AD

4 Questions on ENR

Q.1. Which part is AIP Part 2? ENR

Q.2. A detaild description of lower ATS routes can be found in part ___ section ___ of the AIP. 2, ENR3

Q.3. In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas? ENR

Q.4. The informations on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP: ENR

Rest All on GEN.

Arrow For a choice between GEN1 and GEN2 go for GEN1. For a choice between 1, AIRAC and 2, AIRAC go for 2, AIRAC.

Arrow Aeronautical Information Service (AIS): http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1093

Arrow Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks) contains: Standards only (no recommended practices)

Arrow According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by: the state of registry or common mark registering authority

Arrow The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols include in the radio call signs allocated: to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union

Arrow The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by: the International Civil Aviation Organisation

Arrow Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Registration: The category of aircraft

Arrow According to Annex 7 certain combinations of letters are not to be used. These include:

SOS = Distress

PAN = Urgency

XXX = Urgency

QUG = I am ditching

TTT = Safety (a third level of emergency communication alert now only used in maritime operations)

Arrow When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the: five letter combinations used in the international code of signals

Arrow How high are the markings on the horizontal surfaces of an aeroplane? 50 cm

Arrow The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be: at least 30 centimetres

Arrow Aerodrome and Runways: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1096

Arrow How is taxiway holding position marked?

One or three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway
Occulting yellow guard lights
A red marker board either side of the taxiway
A red light stop bar

Arrow Approach Lighting: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1099

Arrow Runway / Taxiway Lighting and Markings: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1100

Arrow During the climb-out phaseof a flight the pilot-in-command becomes incapacitated. The co-pilot takes over control of the aircraft and decides that he will return for landing. What action has to be taken after landing?

This is a serious incident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an incident
This is an accident. The crew must follow the procedure relevant to an accident

Arrow Which of the following according to ICAO Annex 13, shall be entitled to appoint an accredited representative to participate in the investigation?

any State which, on request, provides information, facilities or experts to the State conducting the investigation
State conducting the investigation and State of design and manufacturing
State conducting the investigation, State of aircraft registry and operator's State

Arrow The conducting of an accident investigation may be delegated, in whole or in part, to:

The State of the Operator
The State of Registry
The State of Manufacture
The State of Registry or the State of the Operator

Arrow The accident investigation preliminary report shall be submitted to appropriate States and to the ICAO, in:

The languageof the investigating State
One of the working languages of ICAO

Arrow Passenger A has passed through security and meets passenger B who has not been through security. What should be the subsequent procedure?

Passenger A to pass through security again
Both passengers to pass through security
Passenger B to pass through security
Both passengers and their luggage to pass through security

Arrow If mixing or contact between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to security control takes place:

All the passengers and their check-in luggage need to be security checked again
All the passengers and their hand baggage need to be re-screened before boarding the aircraft
Only passengers in the specific area where the mixing took place ned to be re-screened before boarding the aircraft
The operator is to be informed and the decision to re-screen taken by the Commander of the flight

Arrow Contracting states are required to have procedures in place for the safety of passengers and crew of aircraft subjected to unlawful interference. The procedures are to be applied:

Throughout the time the aircraft is within the airspace and territory of the state
Until their journey can be continued
Until the aircraft has landed safely at the specifically designated aerodrome
As C, but to include the taxiing and parking of the aircraft at the designated isolated parking area on that aerodrome

Arrow The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called:

Aeronautical part

Arrow If an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure has landed on its territory, each Contracting state shall:

a) Let the aircraft depart if it is necessary to protect human life
b) Deliver food and water but turn down requests for fuel
c) Detain the aircraft on ground
d) A and C

Arrow An aircraft shall not carry munitions of war: unless the written permission of the Authority and the operator is obtained

Arrow Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken.

The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial proceedings
The above question statement is incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be informed
These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state

Arrow Annex 17 to the ICAO convention assigns responsibility to member states to implement:

measures and human and material resources to safeguard international civil aviation
measures to safeguard international civil aviation
measures and human and material resources to safeguard civil aviation
human and material resources to safeguard international civil aviation

Arrow Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with the administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply:

only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights
only to all international civil transport including aircraft engated solely in the carriage of cargo
only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights
to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state

Arrow Each State, according to ICAO Annex 17, shall ensure the establishment of a security programme:

that is common for all airports within State
only for administrative staff of airport
for every airline operating in the State
at each airport

Arrow Annex 17 states that each State is responsible for establishing national aviation security programme at:

all international airports
all international and commercial airports
at each aerodrome
all aerial locations within the FIR

Arrow A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes:

provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land
provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and catering for passengers
provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and refuelling

Arrow Instrument Procedures: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1104

Arrow A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a (tracks are not reciprocal but this fact is not mentioned in this question):

Procedure turn
Base turn
Reversal procedure
Race track

Arrow What is the correct name for a turn from the outbound to the inbound section of an approach?

a procedure turn
a reverse procedure turn
a racetrack
a base leg turn

Since the question does not mention if the tracks are reciprocal or not, the answer can be either "procedure turn" or a "base turn" and not a "base leg turn" (if thats what the examiner is trying to look for considering the question to be complete and correct).

Arrow Medical and Licensing: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1105

Arrow Doubtful or Wrong Questions: http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1106
Back to top
View user's profile Send private message
Display posts from previous:   
Post new topic   Reply to topic    www.TheAirlinePilots.com Forum Index -> Air Law All times are GMT
Page 1 of 1

Jump to:  
You cannot post new topics in this forum
You cannot reply to topics in this forum
You cannot edit your posts in this forum
You cannot delete your posts in this forum
You cannot vote in polls in this forum

Powered by phpBB