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K.Haroon
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PostPosted: Tue Sep 17, 2013 8:56 am    Post subject: Last Minute Crunchies Reply with quote




Arrow an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:

2 Halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent
1 Halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent

Quote:
For seating configuration of 31 to 60 --- 2 fire extinguishers are required --- 1 must contain Halon 1211 or equivalent.

For seating configuration of 61 or More --- Out of the required fire extinguishers --- 2 must contain Halon 1211 or equivalent



Arrow an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least:

3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent (Greater than 60 -- 2 Halon in the passenger compartment (as explaind above) and 1 for the flight deck)


Arrow Minimum number of crash axes or crowbars, with A MTOM greater than 5700 kg or More than 9 seats: 1 is required. If more than 200 seats then 2 are required.


Arrow A fire in the toilet waste bin is extinguished with:

BCF
2 types of extinguisher simultaneously


Arrow You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for all of the following:

1. a paper fire
2. a plastic fire
3. a hydrocarbon fire
4. an electrical fire.


Arrow Gloves are Close to a fire extinguisher and a crash axe is beneath the fire exintguisher.


Arrow Class A: Fires involving solid materials, usually of an organic nature.

Class B: Fires involving liquids or liquefiable solids

Class C: Fires involving gases

Class D: Fires involving metals





Arrow Fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are the following:

1. H2O
2. CO2
3. dry-chemical
4. halon.


Arrow A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:

1. a paper fire
3. a fabric fire
5. a wood fire


2. a hydrocarbon fire
4. an electrical fire


Arrow In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:

1. a dry powder fire extinguisher
2. a water spray atomizer


3. a water fire-extinguisher
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum


Arrow A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is:

water
dry powder
CO2 (carbon dioxide)
foam


Arrow You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for the following:

1 a paper fire
2 a plastic fire
3 hydrocarbon fire
4 an electrical fire


Arrow To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:

3.a halon fire-extinguisher
4.a CO2 fire-extinguisher


1.a water fire-extinguisher
2.a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher


Arrow CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight:

1.class A fires
2.class B fires
3.electrical source fires


4.special fires: metals, gas, chemical product


Arrow The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:

2.CO2
3.dry-chemical
4.halogen


1.H2O


Arrow A Halon fire extinguisher should preferably be used on which of the following types of fire:

Paper
Plastic
Hydrocarbon
Brake


Arrow What type of fire extinguisher do you use on a magnesium fire?

Water
Sand
Halon
Foam


Arrow On what type of fire would you use a CO2 extinguisher?

Paper
Hydrocarbon
Plastic
Electrical


Arrow The correct colour for hand held fire extinguisher labels is

black for CO2
red for water
yellow for BCF
blue for foam


Arrow An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last: 30 minutes or 2 hours of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual Certificate of Airworthiness

Quote:
For C of A issued on or after 1 April 1998: Multi-engine turbine powered with a MAPSC of more than 9 or has a MCTOM over 5700 kgs must have a CVR which records for 2 hours. If 5700 Kg or less than the time ins 30 minutes



Arrow the cockpit voice recorder, when required, must start to record automatically: prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power


Arrow for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last: 25 hours of operation


Arrow Flight data recorder must start automatically prior to the aircraft being capable of moving under its own power and stop automatically after the aircraft is unable to move by its own power


Arrow When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations?

Take-off and landing
Throughout the flight


Arrow If the commander of an aeroplane violates any local rule, regulation or procedure he is to report the matter:

to the local Authority without delay
to the Authority of the State of the operator without delay
to the local Authority within ten days
to the Authority of the State of the operator within 14 days

Quote:
If local regulations or procedures are violated the pilot-in-command must notify the appropriate local authority without delay and the Authority in the state of registration within ten days.



Arrow What is the definition of a wet runway?

25% contamination of the runway with water depth less than 3 mm
More than 25% coverage of water greater than 3 mm deep
Water standing on a runway without grooves or a porous pavement
Water standing on a runway with water depth less than 3 mm, appearing non-reflective


Arrow For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will: increase the hydroplaning speed


Arrow For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

1.Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves
2.Speed is greater than 96 kt


3.Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves
4.Speed is greater than 127 kt

Quote:
You have to assume a rotating tyre unless the question says otherwise.

Hydroplaning speed for a rotating tyre = 9 x square root of tyre pressure

1 bar = 14.5 psi

Hydroplaning speed= 9 x square root of (8 x 14.5) = 96.93 or 97 knots



Arrow The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the: depth of the standing water on the runway


Arrow The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of: viscous hydroplaning


Arrow Viscous hydroplaning is caused by: a smooth and dirty runway surface


Arrow In a SNOWTAM, if the cleared length of runway is less than the published length, what and where would the information be displayed?

Box D with the cleared length expressed as a percentage
Box D with the cleared length in metres
Box T explained in plain English


Arrow Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres if this is less than the published length, how is this reported:

by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in metres
in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM


Arrow The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is: 24 hours


Arrow An observer in the cockpit sees an aeroplane closing from the forward left, what colour is the first light seen (at night)? Steady green


Arrow Regarding an observer in the cockpit seeing an aeroplane coming from the forward left, what colour is the first light seen (at night)? Steady green


Arrow From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be observed: Red


Arrow During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right will first see the: red steady light


Arrow a public address system is required to operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than:

61
30
9
19


Arrow a single deck aeroplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying passengers, must be equipped with at least:

1 megaphone
2 megaphones
2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board
3 megaphones

Quote:
For each passenger deck with 61 to 99 seats, one megaphone is required. With 100 or more seats, two megaphones are required



Arrow a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a:

maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 9 seats
maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 5700 kg


Arrow Number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be at least: 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is the greater


Arrow What is required for navigation in IMC? Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until the visual point


Arrow Oxygen Requirements: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1183


Arrow The minimum time track is a track defined for:

a period of 12 hours
a given travel
a period of 24 hours
aircraft flying in MNPS airspace


Arrow On over-water flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to:

400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed
300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed
200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed
100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed


Arrow The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of flight operation. The commander must use the limitations provided by the MEL:

Prior to the aircraft take-off
At the parking area prior to the aircraft taxiing


Arrow Following an indication of an unserviceability whilst taxiing to the holding point, what do you consult first?

Flight manual
MEL


Arrow A transport category aircraft suffers an unserviceability on the ground prior to take-off. What document do you refer to?

Aircraft Operating Manual
Minimum Equipment List
Operations Manual relevant chapter


Arrow Recency Requirement: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1188


Arrow A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than: 50 NM


Arrow What is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts? 120 mins or 400 nm whichever is less


Arrow an operator shall not operate across areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, unless it is equipped with:

1. signalling equipment
2. at least one ELT
4. additional survival equipment


3. at least 2 ELTs


Arrow Assuming a multi-engine land aeroplane with 60 persons on board. The cruising speed is 180 kt. The aeroplane is capable of continuing the flight with the critical power-unit becoming inoperative. The track will overfly water for a distance of 380 NM from shore. The emergency equipment on board must include:

1 lift raft of 30-seat capacity and 2 life rafts of 20-seat capacity
2 life rafts of 30-seat capacity
3 life rafts of 30-seat capacity
none, distance being less than 400 NM

Quote:
For aircraft capable of continuing flight to an aerodrome with a critical engine inoperative when either 120 minutes (at cruising speed) or 400 NM, whichever is lesser, from land.

In this case 180 x 2 = 360. The track will overfly water for a distance of 380 NM from shore so life rafts are required.

The liferaft capacity must be sufficient to carry all on board either assuming the life raft of largest capacity fails to inflate or including a spare liferaft of the largest capacity.



Arrow When you have been unlawfully interfered with, the commander is required to inform certain people:

(i) State of the Operator
(ii) ICAO
(iii) State of registration of aircraft


(iv) CAA


Arrow The observations and studies conducted on the behaviour of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away: about two seconds beforehand


Arrow As regards the detection of bird strikehazard, the pilot means of information and prevention are:

1.ATIS
2.NOTAMs
5.The report by another crew


3.BIRDTAMs
4.Weather radar


Arrow 90% of bird strikes occur: under 500 m (51% of birdsrikes occur below 100 ft)


Arrow An analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer from: from 0 to 150 m


Arrow The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is:

the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc
broadcasting of recorded distress calls
firing shellcrackers
various visual methods


Arrow At the planning stage for a Class B performance aircraft, what minimum climb gradient do you use? 300 ft min climb speed with all engines operating


Arrow What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs (Passengers with Reduced Mobility)?

Cannot impede the performance of crew duty
Must be seated away from emergency exits


Arrow What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?

Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority
Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes
Have registered offices in all countries of operations
Have facilities for all maintenance


Arrow Documentation and Record Keeping: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1198


Arrow How often should pilot proficiency checks be performed?

No less than 6 months between checks
2 checks every 13 months
3 checks within the year with no less than 4 months between checks
2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks


Arrow Validity period is 6 month for proficiency check and 12 months for line check.


Arrow For an aeroplane powered by turbo-jet engines, the fuel and oil to be carried is at least the amount sufficient to allow the aeroplane:

to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach, at the aerodrome to which the flight is

to have an additional amount of fuel sufficient to provide for the increased consumption on the occurrence of any of the potential contingencies specified by the operator to the satisfaction of the State of the operator; or

to fly to the alternate aerodrome via any predetermined point and thereafter for 30 minutes at 450m (1500 ft) above the alternate aerodrome

All of the above


Arrow In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes, for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for: 2 hours at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel


Arrow a commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:

fuel to hold 30 minutes at 1500 ft above the aerodrome
final reserve fuel remaining

Quote:
Question does not specify what kind of aeroplane. Holding for 30 minutes at 1500 ft is for turbines. So "final reserve fuel remaining" is the best choice available.



Arrow Multi and Single Pilot Operation: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1202


Arrow Aircraft and Crew Leasing: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1204


Arrow Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act to: both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator


Arrow In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the: State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO


Arrow The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board

a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants

a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants

an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board or on the surface



Arrow After an accident or serious incident in flight, the state where the aeroplane lands should report to: State of Registry/ State of the Operator/ICAO


Arrow What is the dispersal time for wake turbulence from a wide-bodied aircraft? 3 mins


Arrow The wake turbulence category HEAVY applies to aircraft with a max certificated all up mass in pounds in excess of:

299,200
275,000
136,000
125,000

Quote:
Dont jump to conclusion, read the full question! Answer has to be in Pounds not Kgs



Arrow According to DOC 4444 (ICAO) a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:

to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross

between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off

to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less than 760m

to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold


Arrow Since exam questions do not include the Super category, learn the following abbreviated table and reproduce it in the exam to save time and get the answers right:




Arrow Takeoff Minima: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1212


Arrow Approach and Landing Minima: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1213


Arrow IFR and VFR Minima: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1214


Arrow Long Range and Polar Navigation : https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1215


Arrow The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is: 10 minutes


Arrow During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal spacing must be at least: 5 minutes


Arrow Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when: Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher


Arrow A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done: At or prior to entering the NAT region


Arrow The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally at 30oW between:

01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
11H30 UTC to 18H00 UTC
00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

Quote:
May be an old ruling if not wrong. The new timings are 1130 to 1900. For more on MNPS see: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1218



Arrow When flying a non-MNPS aircraft, climb through MNPS Airspace is allowed: When under radar and in VHF communications with a controller


Arrow The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a:

certain time of protection depending on its concentration
certain time of protection independent of the outside temperature


Arrow When planning a flight in icing conditions, what are the requirements?

Aircraft to be equipped with approved anti-icing equipment
Apply anti-icing fluid


Arrow For stable clouds:

1. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0C and -10C
3. Icing becomes rare at t < -18C
5. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03 mm


2. The most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0C and -15C
4. Icing becomes rate at t < -30C
6. The diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2 mm


Arrow During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:

at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage)
at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage)


Arrow For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover protection) time be shortest?

Steady snow
Freezing fog
Frost
Freezing rain

Quote:
It will be longest for "Frost"



Arrow When taking off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:

1. An increase in the take-off distance
3. An increase in the stalling speed
5. A decrease of the climb gradient


2. A decrease of the take-off run
4. A decrease of the stalling speed


Arrow When anti-icing has been applied, when must you make sure it is still active?

When clear of icing conditions
On rotation
At brake release for take-off
Until one can use ones own anti-icing equipment


Arrow The commaner shall not commence take-off in icing conditions:

unless the external surfaces are clear of any contamination, except as permitted by Aircraft Flight Manual

unless the external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the aircraft is not to be operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than moderate icing

even if the ice contamination does not lead to an excedence of mass and balance limits


Arrow If taking off in icing conditions, pilot-in-command must make sure: Icing does not affect performance within the constraints of the operations manual


Arrow The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:

1. The type and intensity of the showers
2. The ambient temperature
3. The relative humidity
4. The direction and speed of the wind
5. The temperature of the airplane skin
6. The type of fluid, its concentration and temperature



Arrow Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:

operator
state of the operator
state in which the aeroplane is operating


Arrow Who is responsible for establishing and distribution amendments to noise abatement procedures?

The country where the aeroplane is operated
The country where the aeroplane is registered
The country of the operator of the aerodrome
The operator of the aerodrome


Arrow Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances:

1. When cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots
2. When the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots
3. When the runway is not clear or dry



Arrow Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the operator is:

different according to airports and airplane types
for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport
different for a same airplan type, according to airports
for the same airplane type, the same for all airports


Arrow the take-off climb procedures for noise abatement to be specified by the operator should be:

for all aeroplane types, the same for a specific aerodrome
for any one aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes
for all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes
different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types


Arrow At take-off the maximum mass of the aeroplane shall be:

not more than the basic empty mass plus the payload
not more than the maximum landing mass
equal to or less than that at which the take-off run can be completed under ISA conditions and nil headwind
not more than that which would enable compliance with any noise abatement procedure

Quote:
For more Noise Abatement Procedures see: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1221



Arrow Windshear and Microburst: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1223


Arrow Fuel Jettison: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1224


Arrow Dangerous Goods: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1225


Arrow Wrong or Doubtful Questions: https://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=1226
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